Why Do Christians Use Different Definition Than the Rest of the World, but Then Speak as If….?
Question by Mai Eritas: Why do Christians use different definition than the rest of the world, but then speak as if….?
Why do Christians use different definitions for words, but then speak to people about a subject as if though they are talking about the same thing?
For example, I was reading this Christian magazine today and there was an article in it about alcohol consumption. The article started off with a story about a man named Tony. It reads “Tony began abusing alcohol when he was only 18, he lived in Europe where the legal drinking age was 18. He began drinking 1 drink a day at the age of 18 and continued drinking 1 drink a day for the next few years. When he was in his early 20’s he began to abuse alcohol even more and increased his daily drink consumption to 2 drinks.” The story then goes on to say that over the course of the next few decades he began drinking more and more. By the time he was 60, he was dead.
But see, Christians seem to have their own definition of “alcohol abuse”, one that is in stark contrast to what others believe it to be. No one, other than Christians, consider 1 or 2 drinks a day to be “alcohol abuse” or “alcoholism”. I drink 1 drink A WEEK and I suspect many Christians would think I am an alcoholic.
Why do Christians do this?
Another example is Christians using the terms “homosexual” and “paedophile” as synonyms or interchangeably.
Can anyone think of any other ways in which Christians use definitions of words that are in stark contrast to the way others use them?
Best answer:
Answer by Brittany
That’s quite a slant you’ve got there.
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